[Aug 09, 2023] ExamsTorrent CCSP Exam Practice Test Questions (Updated 830 Questions)

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NEW QUESTION # 268
Which of the following best describes a sandbox?

• A. An isolated space where untested code and experimentation can safely occur separate from the production environment.
• B. A space where you can safely execute malicious code to see what it does.
• C. An isolated space where untested code and experimentation can safely occur within the production environment.
• D. An isolated space where transactions are protected from malicious software

Answer: A

Explanation:
Options C and B are also correct, but A is more general and incorporates them both. D is incorrect, because sandboxing does not take place in the production environment.

NEW QUESTION # 269
Every cloud service provider that opts to join the CSA STAR program registry must complete a ___________.

• A. SOC 2, Type 2 audit report
• B. NIST 800-37 RMF audit
• C. ISO 27001 ISMS review
• D. Consensus Assessment Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 270
An SLA contains the official requirements for contract performance and satisfaction between the cloud provider and cloud customer.
Which of the following would NOT be a component with measurable metrics and requirements as part of an SLA?

• A. Network
• B. Memory
• C. CPU
• D. Users

Answer: D

Explanation:
Dealing with users or user access would not be an appropriate item for inclusion in an SLA specifically.
However, user access and user experience would be covered indirectly through other metrics. Memory, CPU, and network resources are all typically included within an SLA for availability and response times when dealing with any incidents.

NEW QUESTION # 271
A main objective for an organization when utilizing cloud services is to avoid vendor lock-in so as to ensure flexibility and maintain independence.
Which core concept of cloud computing is most related to vendor lock-in?

• A. Portability
• B. Scalability
• C. Interoperability
• D. Reversibility

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Portability is the ability for a cloud customer to easily move their systems, services, and applications among different cloud providers. By avoiding reliance on proprietary APIs and other vendor-specific cloud features, an organization can maintain flexibility to move among the various cloud providers with greater ease. Reversibility refers to the ability for a cloud customer to quickly and easy remove all their services and data from a cloud provider. Interoperability is the ability to reuse services and components for other applications and uses. Scalability refers to the ability of a cloud environment to add or remove resources to meet current demands.

NEW QUESTION # 272
Which of the following threat types can occur when baselines are not appropriately applied or when unauthorized changes are made?

• A. Security misconfiguration
• B. Sensitive data exposure
• C. Insecure direct object references
• D. Unvalidated redirects and forwards

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security misconfigurations occur when applications and systems are not properly configured or maintained in a secure manner. This can be due to a shortcoming in security baselines or configurations, unauthorized changes to system configurations, or a failure to patch and upgrade systems as the vendor releases security patches. Insecure direct object references occur when code references aspects of the infrastructure, especially internal or private systems, and an attacker can use that knowledge to glean more information about the infrastructure. Unvalidated redirects and forwards occur when an application has functions to forward users to other sites, and these functions are not properly secured to validate the data and redirect requests, allowing spoofing for malware or phishing attacks. Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data.

NEW QUESTION # 273
Virtual machine (VM) configuration management (CM) tools should probably include
____________.
Response:

• A. Anti-tampering mechanisms
• B. Biometric recognition
• C. Log file generation
• D. Hackback capabilities

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 274
Vulnerability scans are dependent on ________ in order to function.
Response:

• A. Forensic analysis
• B. Vulnerability signatures
• C. Privileged access
• D. Malware libraries

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 275
Which of the following is the correct name for Tier II of the Uptime Institute Data Center Site Infrastructure Tier Standard Topology?
Response:

• A. Fault-Tolerant Site Infrastructure
• B. Redundant Site Infrastructure Capacity Components
• C. Concurrently Maintainable Site Infrastructure
• D. Basic Site Infrastructure

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 276
Which of the following tools might be useful in data discovery efforts that are based on content analysis?

• A. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
• B. Digital Rights Management (DRM)
• C. DLP
• D. iSCSI

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 277
Which of the following security measures done at the network layer in a traditional data center are also applicable to a cloud environment?

• A. Dedicated switches
• B. Direct connections
• C. Redundant network circuits
• D. Trust zones

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Trust zones can be implemented to separate systems or tiers along logical lines for great security and access controls. Each zone can then have its own security controls and monitoring based on its particular needs.

NEW QUESTION # 278
Which of the following could be used as a second component of multifactor authentication if a user has an RSA token?

• A. Access card
• B. Retina scan
• C. RFID
• D. USB thumb drive

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
A retina scan could be used in conjunction with an RSA token because it is a biometric factor, and thus a different type of factor. An access card, RFID, and USB thumb drive are all items in possession of a user, the same as an RSA token, and as such would not be appropriate.

NEW QUESTION # 279
What is the primary security mechanism used to protect SOAP and REST APIs?

• A. Firewalls
• B. Encryption
• C. XML firewalls
• D. WAFs

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 280
Federation should be __________ to the users.

• A. Expensive
• B. Proportional
• C. Transparent
• D. Hostile

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 281
Which of the following areas of responsibility always falls completely under the purview of the cloud provider, regardless of which cloud service category is used?

• A. Data
• B. Physical
• C. Governance
• D. Infrastructure

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Regardless of the cloud service category used, the physical environment is always the sole responsibility of the cloud provider. In many instances, the cloud provider will supply audit reports or some general information about their physical security practices, especially to those customers or potential customers that may have regulatory requirements, but otherwise the cloud customer will have very little insight into the physical environment. With IaaS, the infrastructure is a shared responsibility between the cloud provider and cloud customer. With all cloud service categories, the data and governance are always the sole responsibility of the cloud customer.

NEW QUESTION # 282
Many aspects and features of cloud computing can make eDiscovery compliance more difficult or costly.
Which aspect of cloud computing would be the MOST complicating factor?

• A. Measured service
• B. Portability
• C. Multitenancy
• D. Broad network access

Answer: C

Explanation:
With multitenancy, multiple customers share the same physical hardware and systems. With the nature of a cloud environment and how it writes data across diverse systems that are shared by others, the process of eDiscovery becomes much more complicated. Administrators cannot pull physical drives or easily isolate which data to capture. They not only have to focus on which data they need to collect, while ensuring they find all of it, but they also have to make sure that other data is not accidently collected and exposed along with it. Measured service is the aspect of a cloud where customers only pay for the services they are actually using, and for the duration of their use. Portability refers to the ease with which an application or service can be moved among different cloud providers. Broad network access refers to the nature of cloud services being accessed via the public Internet, either with or without secure tunneling technologies. None of these concepts would pertain to eDiscovery.

NEW QUESTION # 283
Which standards body depends heavily on contributions and input from its open membership base?

• A. NIST
• B. ISO
• C. ICANN
• D. CSA

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 284
Which data state would be most likely to use TLS as a protection mechanism?

• A. Data in transit
• B. Data in use
• C. Archived
• D. Data at rest

Answer: A

Explanation:
TLS would be used with data in transit, when packets are exchanged between clients or services and sent across a network. During the data-in-use state, the data is already protected via a technology such as TLS as it is exchanged over the network and then relies on other technologies such as digital signatures for protection while being used. The data-at-rest state primarily uses encryption for stored file objects. Archived data would be the same as data at rest.

NEW QUESTION # 285
You are the security manager for a small surgical center. Your organization is reviewing upgrade options for its current, on-premises data center. In order to best meet your needs, which one of the following options would you recommend to senior management?
Response:

• A. Leasing a data center that is currently owned by another firm
• B. Renting private cloud space in a Tier 2 data center
• C. Staying with the current data center
• D. Building a completely new data center

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 286
Who is the entity identified by personal data?

• A. The data subject
• B. The data custodian
• C. The data processor
• D. The data owner

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 287
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