[2025] Pass ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Exam Updated 330 Questions

Get 2025 Updated Free ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Exam Questions and Answer

NEW QUESTION # 68
As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:
[I]. Test environment
[ii]. Expected result
[iii]. Actual result.
[IV] Test level.
[V]. Root cause.
Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to CORRECTLY specify in a defect report?

• A. [ii], [IV] and [V].
• B. [l] and [IV]
• C. [ii] and [III].
• D. [ii], [iii] and [v]

Answer: C

Explanation:
When writing a defect report, the tester can specify the expected result and the actual result based on the observation. The expected result is what the requirements specify, and the actual result is what was observed during testing. These elements are crucial for clearly communicating the nature of the defect to developers and other stakeholders. The other items such as test environment, test level, and root cause may not be clear or necessary at this stage of defect reporting.
References: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, Section on defect management and reporting.

NEW QUESTION # 69
The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application.
What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?
Defect detected date: 15 8.2010
Defect detected by: Joe Smith
Test level System test
Test case: Area 5/TC 98
Build version: 2011-16.2
Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1, t click ENTER to continue to screen 2 Nothing happens, no system response at all.

• A. Add information about which developer should fix the bug
• B. Add the time stamp when the incident happened
• C. Add an impact analysis
• D. Add information about which web browser was used

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most important report improvement for the given incident report would be to add information about which web browser was used when the defect was detected. This information is relevant for reproducing and debugging the defect, as different web browsers may have different behaviors or compatibility issues with the web application. The other options are less important or irrelevant for the incident report. The developer who should fix the bug can be assigned by the project manager or the defect tracking system, not by the tester who reports the defect. The time stamp when the incident happened is not very useful, as it does not indicate the cause or the frequency of the defect. The impact analysis is not part of the incident report, but rather of the risk assessment or prioritization process. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 140.

NEW QUESTION # 70
The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

• A. are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid
• B. cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid
• C. are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques
• D. run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 71
Which of the following definitions is NOT true?

• A. Test execution tools execute test objects using automated test scripts.
• B. Test comparators determine differences between files, databases or test results.
• C. Test data preparation tools fill databases, create files or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the execution of tests.
• D. Test Management tools monitor and report on how a system behaves during the testing activities.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Test Management tools are designed to support the planning, execution, and monitoring of the testing process.
They provide features for managing test cases, test runs, tracking defects, and reporting on testing activities.
However, the statement in option C describes Test Management tools as monitoring and reporting on the system's behavior during testing activities, which is not accurate. Test Management tools focus on the testing process itself rather than on the behavior of the system under test.
* Test data preparation tools (A) indeed create and manage test data for use during test execution.
* Test execution tools (B) automate the execution of test cases and the comparison of actual outcomes against expected results.
* Test comparators (D) are tools that compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes, highlighting discrepancies.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer as it inaccurately describes the function of Test Management tools.

NEW QUESTION # 72
A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option?

• A. Document incidents on a large board in the lab
• B. Purchase and deploy an incident management tool
• C. Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls
• D. Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet

Answer: D

Explanation:
An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident management tool is a software tool that supports recording and tracking incidents throughout their life cycle. A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. The best option for this case is to manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet. This option has several advantages over other options:
* It is low cost, as it does not require purchasing any additional software or hardware.
* It is easy to implement within a week, as it does not require installing or configuring any complex software or hardware.
* It is accessible and transparent, as it can be viewed and updated by anyone who has access to the intranet.
* It is structured and organized, as it can store and display various information about incidents, such as identifier, summary, description, severity, priority, status, resolution, etc. The other options are not suitable for this case, as they have several disadvantages over the chosen option:
* Documenting incidents on a large board in the lab is not a good option, as it is not accessible or transparent to anyone who is not physically present in the lab. It is also not structured or organized, as it may not store or display all the necessary information about incidents.
* Purchasing and deploying an incident management tool is not a good option, as it is not low cost or easy to implement within a week. It may require spending a significant amount of money and time on acquiring, installing and configuring the software or hardware.
* Managing the incidents through emails and phone calls is not a good option, as it is not structured or organized. It may lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information about incidents. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page
32-33.

NEW QUESTION # 73
Which ONE of the following options BEST describes Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

• A. Requires testing to be performed after development is completed to validate software functionality.
• B. Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders-usually using the Given/When/Then format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.
• C. Defines test cases at a low level, close to the implementation, using unit test frameworks.
• D. Is primarily focused on non-functional testing techniques to ensure system reliability and performance.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:BDD emphasizes collaboration between developers, testers, and business stakeholders to define systembehavior in a readable format (A). It typically uses the Given-When-Thensyntax. Unlike unit testing (B), BDD is at a higher level of abstraction. It does not focus solely on non-functional testing (C) and encourages early testing rather than post-development validation (D).

NEW QUESTION # 74
During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. Which of the following is the next step the tester should take poor to recording the deviation?

• A. Send an email to the developer and not report the bug
• B. Try to recreate the incident before reporting
• C. Report the incident as is without any further action
• D. Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem

Answer: B

Explanation:
An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident report is a document that records the details of an incident. The next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation is to try to recreate the incident before reporting. This can help confirm that the incident is reproducible and not caused by a random or external factor. This can also help gather more information about the incident, such as the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, the severity and priority of the incident, or any screenshots or logs that can illustrate the incident. Trying to identify the code fragment causing the problem is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is a debugging activity that is usually performed by developers after receiving the incident report. Sending an email to the developer and not reporting the bug is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is an informal and unstructured way of communicating incidents that can lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information. Reporting the incident as is without any further action is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this can result in incomplete or inaccurate incident reports that can hamper the investigation and resolution of incidents. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 32-33.

NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?
I Test reports shall be approved by the test team.
II Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions.
Ill Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing.
IV Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer V Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

• A. II, III, V
• B. II, III, IV
• C. I, III, v
• D. I, II, IV

Answer: A

Explanation:
Statements II, III and V are true about test reports. Test reports are documents that provide information on the results and status of testing activities for a given period or phase. Test reports should give stakeholders information as basis for decisions, such as whether to release the software product, whether to continue testing, whether to change the scope or priorities of testing, etc. Test reports should summarize what happened through a period of testing, such as what test cases were executed, what defects were found, what risks were identified, what issues were encountered, what achievements were made, etc. Test reports should include information about remaining risks, such as what defects are still open, what test cases are still pending, what functionalities are still untested, what uncertainties are still unresolved, etc. Statements I and IV are not true about test reports. Test reports do not need to be approved by the test team, the development team, or the customer, unless it is specified by the test policy or the test plan. Test reports only need to be reviewed and verified by the test leader or the test manager before being distributed to the intended recipients. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 141.

NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

• A. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.
• B. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.
• C. EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.
• D. EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Experience based techniques (EBT) are techniques that use the knowledge, intuition and skills of the test engineers to design and execute tests. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies, domains, applications or systems. EBT are not based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques, but rather on their personal judgment and creativity. EBT are not done as a second stage of testing, after non-experience-based testing took place, but rather as a complementary or alternative approach to other techniques. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in both testing and the application or technological domain, as this can help the test engineer identify potential risks, scenarios or defects. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 48-49.

NEW QUESTION # 77
Which of the following sentences describe a product risk?

• A. The development team lacks knowledge of the technology on which the product is based
• B. Failure in acquiring an adequate and test automation tool
• C. The application might not be able to provide the expected responsiveness under a load of up-lo 300 concurrent users
• D. A wrong configuration of the test environment that causes incidents related to the environment and not to the software under test

Answer: C

Explanation:
This question relates to identifying product risks, which are potential problems associated with the product itself, such as software functionality, reliability, usability, and performance. Option A describes a scenario where the application might not meet performance requirements under specific conditions (up to 300 concurrent users), which directly impacts the product's ability to perform its intended function. This is a classic example of a product risk, as it concerns the product's quality and its ability to meet user needs.
Options B, C, and D, on the other hand, relate to project risks, which are concerns related to the management and execution of the project, such as tool acquisition, environment configuration, and team expertise, rather than the quality of the product itself.

NEW QUESTION # 78
The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.
What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?

• A. Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development; Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing
• B. Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test,Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge
• C. Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing, Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development
• D. Advantage: being closer to customer perspective,Disadvantage less independence in perspectives

Answer: D

Explanation:
Being part of the support team means that the testers are closer to the customer perspective, which is an advantage for testing, as they can better understand the user needs and expectations, and identify more realistic scenarios and risks. However, being part of the support team also means that they have less independence in deciding what and how to test, as they may be influenced by the customer's preferences or requests, which could compromise the objectivity and effectiveness of testing. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 6.

NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following statements best describe Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

• A. Expresses the behavior of an application with test cases written in Given When Then format.
• B. A psychological technique in which the team's behavior in agile teams is evaluated.
• C. A collaborative approach that allows every stakeholder to contribute to how the software component must behave.
• D. Is used to develop code guided by automated test cases.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Behavior-Driven Development (BDD) is a collaborative approach that enhances communication among project stakeholders, including developers, testers, and business analysts. It involves defining how software should behave through examples written in a common language understandable by all stakeholders, often using the Given-When-Then format.

NEW QUESTION # 80
Given the following state model of sales order software:
SEE ATTACHMENT
Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

• A. PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED
• B. IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION
• C. IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED
• D. PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

Answer: B

Explanation:
State transition testing is a black-box testing technique where test cases are designed to cover states and transitions of a state machine.
Given the state model with the following transitions:
* PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION
* IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED
* IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED
* SHIPPED -> INVOICED
* INVOICED -> CANCELLED
* CANCELLED -> PLACED
To cover all transitions at least once, we need to create a sequence that covers all six transitions.
Option A: IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED- Misses SHIPPED -> INVOICED and INVOICED -> CANCELLED transitions.
Option B: IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION- Covers all transitions.
Option C: PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED (ISTQB not-for-profit association) (Udemy)sses INVOICED -> CANCELLED transition.
Option D: PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED- Misses SHIPPED -> INVOICED and INVOICED -> CANCELLED transitions.
Given these, Option B covers all the transitions6†source9†source.
References:
* Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
* 10 Sample Exams ISTQB Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0

NEW QUESTION # 81
Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

• A. The customer
• B. The test leader
• C. The development manager
• D. The developer

Answer: B

Explanation:
The test leader is the person who is responsible for planning, monitoring, and controlling the test activities and resources in a test project. The test leader should have the best knowledge of the test objectives, scope, risks, resources, schedule, and quality criteria. The test leader shouldalso be aware of the test automation criteria, such as the execution frequency, the test support, the team education, the roles and responsibilities, and the devs and testers collaboration1. Based on these factors, the test leader can decide which tests are suitable for automation and which are not, and prioritize them accordingly. The test leader can also coordinate with the test automation engineers, the developers, and the stakeholders to ensure the alignment of the test automation strategy with the test project goals and expectations. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, Page 152; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 403; ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 6, Section 6.1.1, Page 514; Top 8 Test Automation Criteria You Need To Fulfill - QAMIND1

NEW QUESTION # 82
A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive). Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?

• A. 1000,50000,99999
• B. 999.100000
• C. 999.1000.23232.99999.100000
• D. 999.1000.50000.100000.100001

Answer: D

Explanation:
A correct list of boundary values for the P input should include the minimum and maximum values of the valid range (15 and 350), as well as the values just below and above the boundaries (14 and 351). Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that involves testing the values at or near the boundaries of an input domain or output range, as these values are more likely to cause errors than values in the middle. Option B satisfies this condition, as it has all four boundary values (14, 15, 350, 351). Option A has two values from the same equivalence class (1000 and 99999), option C has two values outside the range (999 and 100000), and option D has no boundary values at all. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level
2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 34.

NEW QUESTION # 83
You are testing the download process of a mobile phone application.
For which to the following capabilities to the system you need to design a nonfunctional test?

• A. The application was correctly downloaded
• B. It was easy to locate, download and install the application
• C. The application created an installation log file in a given folder
• D. The application installed only after the user's approval

Answer: B

Explanation:
This question asks for a non-functional aspect of testing the download process of a mobile application. Option A, "It was easy to locate, download and install the application," refers to usability, which is a non-functional quality attribute. Non-functional testing involves testing the system's attributes, such as usability, performance, reliability, etc., rather than specific behaviors or functions. Options B, "The application was correctly downloaded," C, "The application created an installation log file in a given folder," and D, "The application installed only after the user's approval," describe functional aspects, focusing on what the software does rather than how it performs or is experienced by the user.

NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following statements contradicts the general principles of testing?

• A. If new defects are to be found we should run the same test set more often.
• B. Most defects are found in a small subset of a system's modules.
• C. Testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project.
• D. How testing is done, is based on the situation in a particular project.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Statement B contradicts the general principles of testing, because running the same test set more often will not increase the chances of finding new defects, unless there are some changes in the system or environment that affect the test results. Running different test sets with different inputs, outputs or conditions would be more effective in finding new defects. Statements A, C and D are consistent with the general principles of testing. Statement A states that most defects are found in a small subset of a system's modules, which is true according to the defect clustering principle. Statement C states that testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project, which is true according to the early testing principle. Statement D states that how testing is done, is based on the situation in a particular project, which is true according to the context-dependent testing principle. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, pages 4-6.

NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

• A. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it
• B. Coverage analysis
• C. Code inspection
• D. Functional Testing

Answer: D

Explanation:
Functional testing is an example of black-box dynamic testing. Black-box testing (also known as specification-based testing) is a type of testing that does not consider the internal structure or implementation of the system under test, but rather its external behavior or functionality. Dynamic testing is a type of testing that involves executing the system under test with various inputs and observing its outputs. Functional testing is a type of black-box dynamic testing that verifies that the system under test performs its intended functions according to its requirements or specifications. Functional testing can be performed at various levels and scopes depending on the objectives and criteria of testing. The other options are not examples of black-box dynamic testing. Code inspection is an example of white-box static testing. White-box testing (also known as structure-based testing) is a type of testing that considers the internal structure or implementation of the system under test. Static testing is a type of testing that does not involve executing the system under test, but rather analyzing it for defects, errors, or violations of standards. Code inspection is a type of white-box static testing that involves examining the source code of the system under test for quality, readability, maintainability, etc.
Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it is an example of white-box dynamic testing. Memory leaks are defects that occur when a program fails to release memory that it has allocated but no longer needs.
Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it requires knowledge and access to the internal structure or implementation of the program, such as memory allocation and deallocation mechanisms, pointers, references, etc. Coverage analysis is an example of white-box static testing. Coverage analysis is a technique that measures how much of the code or structure of the system under test has been exercised by a test suite.
Coverage analysis requires knowledge and access to the internal structure or implementation of the system under test, such as statements, branches, paths, conditions, etc. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 7.

NEW QUESTION # 86
Manager responsibilities in formalreview includes adexceptone of the following:

• A. Allocate time for review
• B. Determines if the review objectives have been met
• C. Decide on the execution of reviews
• D. Planning the review

Answer: B

Explanation:
A formal review is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. A formal review can have various roles involved, such as manager, moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The manager responsibilities in formal review include all except one of the following:
* Planning the review (correct responsibility)
* Determines if the review objectives have been met (incorrect responsibility)
* Decide on the execution of reviews (correct responsibility)
* Allocate time for review (correct responsibility) The responsibility of determining if the review objectives have been met belongs to the moderator role, not to themanager role. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 28-29.

NEW QUESTION # 87
4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:
0 < x <100
100<= x <= 200
200 < x < 500
x >= 500
Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?

• A. 0. 1.99, 100.200,201.499, 500;
• B. 50; 100; 250; 1000
• C. 0.50; 100; 150.200.350.500;
• D. 50; 100; 200. 1000

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions should include one value from each equivalence class, and no value from outside the range. Option C satisfies this condition, as it has one value from each of the four equivalence classes (50, 100, 250, 500). Option A has two values from the same equivalence class (100 and 200), option B has values outside the range (0 and 0.99), and option D has two values from the same equivalence class (1000 and 500). Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level
2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 35.

NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

• A. Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review
• B. Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting
• C. Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review
• D. Determining the people who will be involved in the review

Answer: A

Explanation:
This answer is correct because identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review is one of the tasks the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review. The Author is the person who creates the work product to be reviewed, such as a requirement specification, a design document, or a test case. The Author's tasks include preparing the work product for the review, identifying potential anomalies in the work product, and fixing the anomalies found in the work product after the review. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.1

NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following statements about testware are correct?
I When closing the test activities, all the testware resources can be uninstalled and released II All the testware should be subject to Configuration Management III. The testware. at the end of the project, should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance IV The developers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware

• A. II, IV
• B. I, IV
• C. II, Ill
• D. I, Ill

Answer: C

Explanation:
Testware is a term that refers to all artifacts produced during the testing process, such as test plans, test cases, test scripts, test data, test results, defect reports, etc. The following statements about testware are correct:
* II) All the testware should be subject to Configuration Management. Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains consistency among work products throughout their life cycle.
Configuration management applies to all testware, as it helps ensure their quality and consistency, track their changes and defects, control their versions and access rights, and link them to other artifacts.
* III) The testware at the end of the project should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance. Maintenance testing is testing performed on a software product after delivery to correct defects or improve performance or other attributes. Maintenance testing requires testware from previous testing activities or phases, such as test cases, test data, test results, etc. Therefore, the testware at the end of the project should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance testing, such as support team or maintenance team. The following statements about testware are incorrect:
* I) When closing the test activities, all the testware resources can be uninstalled and released. This statement is incorrect, as some testware resources may still be needed for future testing activities or phases, such as maintenance testing or regression testing. Therefore, when closing the test activities, some testware resources should be archived and stored for future use, while others can be uninstalled and released.
* IV) The developers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware. This statement is incorrect, as the testers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware. The testers should ensure that they have access to all necessary testware resources and that they are installed and configured properly before starting the test execution. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 6, page 58-61.

NEW QUESTION # 90
......

Verified ISTQB-CTFL exam dumps Q&As with Correct 330 Questions and Answers: https://pass4sure.examstorrent.com/ISTQB-CTFL-exam-dumps-torrent.html