[2024] Pass Key features of CISA Course with Updated 1151 Questions

CISA Sample Practice Exam Questions 2024 Updated Verified

ISACA CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor) certification is a globally recognized credential awarded to individuals who demonstrate expertise in information systems auditing, control, and security. Certified Information Systems Auditor certification is designed to validate the knowledge and skills required to assess the security and control of complex enterprise systems, and to provide assurance that they are operating in accordance with established standards and best practices.

The CISA certification exam is a computer-based exam that consists of 150 multiple-choice questions. CISA exam is offered in several languages, including English, Chinese, French, German, Italian, Japanese, Korean, Portuguese, Spanish, and Turkish. CISA exam is four hours long and is administered at authorized testing centers around the world.

 

NEW QUESTION # 264
A security review focused on data loss prevention (DLP) revealed the organization has no visibility to data stored in the cloud. What is the IS auditors BEST recommendation to address this issue?

• A. Implement a file system scanner to discover data stored in the cloud.
• B. Employ a cloud access security broker (CASB).
• C. Utilize a DLP tool on desktops to monitor user activities.
• D. Enhance the firewall at the network perimeter.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 265
When evaluating the design of controls related to network monitoring, which of the following is MOST important for an IS auditor to review?

• A. Reports of network traffic analysis
• B. Incident monitoring togs
• C. Network topology diagrams
• D. The ISP service level agreement

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 266
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the scope of privacy concerns for an IT project?

• A. Data ownership
• B. End user access rights
• C. Business requirements and data flows
• D. Applicable laws and regulations

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 267
Which of the following MOST effectively minimizes downtime during system conversions?

• A. Direct cutover
• B. Phased approach
• C. Parallel run
• D. Pilot study

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 268
A new regulation requires organizations to report significant security incidents to the regulator within 24 hours of identification. Which of the following is the IS auditor's BEST recommendation to facilitate compliance with the regulation?

• A. Enhance the alert functionality of the intrusion detection system (IDS).
• B. Include the requirement in the incident management response plan.
• C. Engage an external security incident response expert for incident handling.
• D. Establish key performance indicators (KPIs) for timely identification of security incidents.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Governance and Management of IT

NEW QUESTION # 269
Which of the following should be the IS auditor's PRIMARY focus when evaluating an organization s offsite storage facility?

• A. Retention policy and period
• B. Adequacy of physical and environmental controls
• C. Shared facilities
• D. Results of business continuity plan (BCP) tests

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 270
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk related to the use of virtualized environments?

• A. The host may be a potential single point of failure within the system.
• B. There may be increased potential for session hijacking.
• C. Ability to change operating systems may be limited.
• D. There may be insufficient processing capacity to assign to guests.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 271
What is the most common purpose of a virtual private network implementation?

• A. A virtual private network (VPN) helps to secure access within an enterprise when communicating over a dedicated T1 connection between network segments within the same facility.
• B. A virtual private network (VPN) helps to secure access between an enterprise and its partners when communicating over a dedicated T1 connection.
• C. A virtual private network (VPN) helps to secure access between an enterprise and its partners when communicating over a wireless connection.
• D. A virtual private network (VPN) helps to secure access between an enterprise and its partners when communicating over an otherwise unsecured channel such as the Internet.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A virtual private network (VPN) helps to secure access between an enterprise and its partners when communicating over an otherwise unsecured channel such as the Internet.

NEW QUESTION # 272
An organization considering the outsourcing of a business application should FIRST:

• A. conduct a cost-benefit analysis.
• B. issue a request for proposal (RFP).
• C. define service level requirements.
• D. perform a vulnerability assessment.

Answer: B

Explanation:
An RFP is a document used to solicit bids from potential vendors and to outline the requirements for a particular project. It typically includes a description of the project, a list of the requirements, and the criteria for evaluating the bids. The RFP outlines the bidding process and contract terms and establishes a strong foundation for the organization in a procurement process

NEW QUESTION # 273
How does the digital envelop work? What are the correct steps to follow?

• A. You encrypt the data using the session key and then you encrypt the session key using the receiver's public key
• B. You encrypt the data using a session key and then encrypt session key using private key of a sender
• C. You encrypt the data using the session key and then you encrypt the session key using sender's public key
• D. You encrypt the data using the session key and then you encrypt the session key using the receiver's private key

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The process of encrypting bulk data using symmetric key cryptography and then encrypting the session key using public key algorithm is referred as a digital envelope.
A Digital Envelope is used to send encrypted information using symmetric crypto cipher and then key session along with it. It is secure method to send electronic document without compromising the data integrity, authentication and non-repudiation, which were obtained with the use of symmetric keys.
A Digital envelope mechanism works as follows:
The symmetric key used to encrypt the message can be referred to as session key. The bulk of the message would take advantage of the high speed provided by Symmetric Cipher.
The session key must then be communicated to the receiver in a secure way to allow the receiver to decrypt the message.
If the session key is sent to receiver in the plain text, it could be captured in clear text over the network and anyone could access the session key which would lead to confidentiality being compromised.
Therefore it is critical to encrypt the session key with the receiver public key before sending it to the receiver. The receiver's will use their matching private key to decrypt the session key which then allow them to decrypt the message using the session key.
The encrypted message and the encrypted session key are sent to the receiver who, in turn decrypts the session key with the receiver's private key. The session key is then applied to the message cipher text to get the plain text.
The following were incorrect answers:
You encrypt the data using a session key and then encrypt session key using private key of a sender - If the session key is encrypted using sender's private key, it can be decrypted only using sender's public key.
The sender's public key is know to everyone so anyone can decrypt session key and message.
You encrypt the data using the session key and then you encrypt the session key using sender's public key
- If the session key is encrypted by using sender's public key then only sender can decrypt the session key using his/her own private key and receiver will not be able to decrypt the same.
You encrypt the data using the session key and then you encrypt the session key using the receiver's private key - Sender should not have access to receiver's private key. This is not a valid option.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 350 and 351

NEW QUESTION # 274
As an IS auditor it is very important to understand the importance of job scheduling. Which of the following statement is NOT true about job scheduler or job scheduling software?

• A. Job information is set up only once, which increase the probability of an error.
• B. Reliance on operator is reduced.
• C. Records are maintained of all job success and failures.
• D. Job dependencies are defined so that if a job fails, subsequent jobs relying on its output will not be processed.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The NOT keyword is used in this question. You need to find out an option which is not true about job scheduling.
Below are some advantages of job scheduling or using job scheduling software.
Job information is set up only once, reduce the probability of an error.
Records are maintained of all job success and failures.
Reliance on operator is reduced.
Job dependencies are defined so that if a job fails, subsequent jobs relying on its output will not be processed.
For your exam you should know the information below:
A job scheduler is a computer application for controlling unattended background program execution (commonly called batch processing).
Synonyms are batch system, Distributed Resource Management System (DRMS), and Distributed Resource Manager (DRM). Today's job schedulers, often termed workload automation, typically provide a graphical user interface and a single point of control for definition and monitoring of background executions in a distributed network of computers. Increasingly, job schedulers are required to orchestrate the integration of real-time business activities with traditional background IT processing across different operating system platforms and business application environments.
Job scheduling should not be confused with process scheduling, which is the assignment of currently running processes to CPUs by the operating system.
Basic features expected of job scheduler software include:
interfaces which help to define workflows and/or job dependencies
automatic submission of executions
interfaces to monitor the executions
priorities and/or queues to control the execution order of unrelated jobs If software from a completely different area includes all or some of those features, this software is consider to have job scheduling capabilities.
Most operating systems (such as Unix and Windows) provide basic job scheduling capabilities, for example: croon. Web hosting services provide job scheduling capabilities through a control panel or a webcron solution. Many programs such as DBMS, backup, ERPs, and BPM also include relevant job- scheduling capabilities. Operating system ("OS") or point program supplied job-scheduling will not usually provide the ability to schedule beyond a single OS instance or outside the remit of the specific program.
Organizations needing to automate unrelated IT workload may also leverage further advanced features from a job scheduler, such as:
real-time scheduling based on external, unpredictable events
automatic restart and recovery in event of failures
alerting and notification to operations personnel
generation of incident reports
audit trails for regulatory compliance purposes
The following answers are incorrect:
The other options are correctly defined about job scheduling
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 page number 242
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Job_scheduler

NEW QUESTION # 275
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern when reviewing an organization's security information and event management (SIEM) solution?

• A. SIEM configuration is reviewed annually
• B. SIEM reporting is ad hoc.
• C. The SIEM is decentralized.
• D. SIEM reporting is customized.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The greatest concern that the IS auditor should have when reviewing an organization's security information and event management (SIEM) solution is that the SIEM is decentralized. This is because a decentralized SIEM can pose challenges for collecting, correlating, analyzing and reporting on security events and incidents from multiple sources and locations. A decentralized SIEM can also increase the complexity and cost of maintaining and updating the SIEM components, as well as the risk of inconsistent or incomplete security monitoring and response. The IS auditor should recommend that the organization adopts a centralized or hybrid SIEM architecture that can provide a holistic and integrated view of the security posture and activities across the organization. The other findings are not as concerning as a decentralized SIEM, because they can be addressed by implementing best practices and standards for SIEM reporting and configuration. References:
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4

NEW QUESTION # 276
Which of the following controls would BEST ensure that payroll system rate charges are valid?

• A. Rate changes must be entered twice to ensure that they are entered correctly
• B. Only a payroll department manager can input the new rate.
• C. Rate s are report ad to and independently verified by a manager
• D. Rate change require visual verification before acceptance

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 277
An incident response team has been notified of a virus outbreak in a network subnet. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

• A. Verify that the compromised systems are fully functional
• B. Focus on limiting the damage
• C. Document the incident
• D. Remove and restore the affected systems

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 278
Which of the following would an IS auditor MOST likely recommend to ensure that an organization's IT systems are effectively kept up-to-date regarding vulnerabilities?

• A. Risk management
• B. Patch management
• C. Version management
• D. Release management

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 279
Which of the following is MOST helpful in preventing a systems failure from occurring when an application is replaced using the abrupt changeover technique?

• A. Comprehensive documentation
• B. Comprehensive testing
• C. Threat and risk assessment
• D. Change management

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 280
An IS auditor noted that an organization had adequate business continuity plans (BCPs) for each individual
process, but no comprehensive BCP. Which would be the BEST course of action for the IS auditor?

• A. Recommend the creation of a single BCP.
• B. Recommend that an additional comprehensive BCP be developed.
• C. Determine whether the BCPs are consistent.
• D. Accept the BCPs as written.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Depending on the complexity of the organization, there could be more than one plan to address various
aspects of business continuity and disaster recovery. These do not necessarily have to be integrated into
one single plan; however, each plan should be consistent with other plans to have a viable business
continuity planning strategy.

NEW QUESTION # 281
Which of the following would BEST enable an organization to address the security risks associated with a recently implemented bring your own device (BYOD) strategy?

• A. Mobile device upgrade program
• B. Mobile device testing program
• C. Mobile device tracking program
• D. Mobile device awareness program

Answer: D

Explanation:
A mobile device awareness program would best enable an organization to address the security risks associated with a recently implemented bring your own device (BYOD) strategy. A mobile device awareness program is a set of activities that aim to educate and inform the employees about the benefits, challenges, and best practices of using their personal mobile devices for work purposes. A mobile device awareness program can help the organization to:
* Communicate the organization's policies and expectations regarding BYOD, such as which devices are allowed, what data can be accessed or stored, and what security measures are required.
* Raise the employees' awareness of the potential threats and vulnerabilities that affect their mobile devices, such as malware, phishing, data leakage, or device loss.
* Provide the employees with guidance and tips on how to protect their mobile devices and the organization's data, such as using strong passwords, encryption, antivirus software, remote wipe, or VPN.
* Encourage the employees to report any incidents or issues related to their mobile devices, such as suspicious messages, unauthorized access, or device damage.
A mobile device awareness program can help the organization to reduce the security risks associated with BYOD by enhancing the employees' knowledge, skills, and behavior in using their mobile devices securely and responsibly. A mobile device awareness program can also help the organization to comply with relevant regulations and standards that govern data privacy and security in the cloud1.
The other options are not as effective as a mobile device awareness program in enabling an organization to address the security risks associated with BYOD. Option A, mobile device tracking program, is a tool that allows the organization to monitor and locate the employees' mobile devices in case of loss or theft. However, this tool may not prevent or detect other types of security risks, such as malware infection or data breach.
Option B, mobile device upgrade program, is a process that ensures that the employees' mobile devices are running the latest versions of operating systems and applications. However, this process may not address other aspects of security, such as user behavior or data protection. Option C, mobile device testing program, is a method that verifies the functionality and compatibility of the employees' mobile devices with the organization's systems and networks. However, this method may not cover all the scenarios or factors that may affect the security of the mobile devices or the organization's data2.
References:
* Mobile Device Security Awareness Topics3
* Security Awareness Top Ten Topics - #8 Mobile Devices

NEW QUESTION # 282
What would be an IS auditor's BEST recommendation upon finding that a third-party IT service provider hosts the organization's human resources (HR) system in a foreign country?

• A. Review third-party audit reports.
• B. Perform background verification checks.
• C. Implement change management review.
• D. Conduct a privacy impact analysis.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best recommendation for an IS auditor when finding that a third-party IT service provider hosts the organization's HR system in a foreign country is to conduct a privacy impact analysis. A privacy impact analysis is a systematic process that identifies and evaluates the potential risks and impacts of collecting, using, disclosing, and storing personal information. A privacy impact analysis will help the IS auditor to assess the legal, regulatory, contractual, and ethical obligations of the organization and the service provider regarding the protection of personal information. A privacy impact analysis will also help to identify and mitigate any privacy risks and gaps in the service level agreement. References:
* CISA Certification | Certified Information Systems Auditor | ISACA
* CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

NEW QUESTION # 283
If an IS auditor observes that an IS department fails to use formal documented methodologies, policies, and standards, what should the auditor do?

• A. The auditor should at least document the informal standards and policies, and test for compliance.
  Furthermore, the IS auditor should create formal documented policies to be implemented.
• B. The auditor should at least document the informal standards and policies, and test for a compliance.
  Furthermore, the IS auditor should recommend management that formal documented policies be developed and implemented.
• C. Lack of IT documentation is not usually material to the controls tested in an IT audit.
• D. The auditor should at least document the informal standards and policies. Furthermore, the IS auditor should create formal documented policies to be implemented.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
If an IS auditor observes that an IS department fails to use formal documented methodologies, policies, and standards, the auditor should at least document the informal standards and policies, and test for compliance. Furthermore, the IS auditor should recommend to management that formal documented policies be developed and implemented.

NEW QUESTION # 284
.When should an application-level edit check to verify that availability of funds was completed at the electronic funds transfer (EFT) interface?

• A. Before transaction completion
• B. Before an EFT is initiated
• C. During run-to-run total testing
• D. Immediately after an EFT is initiated

Answer: B

Explanation:
An application-level edit check to verify availability of funds should be completed at the electronic funds transfer (EFT) interface before an EFT is initiated.

NEW QUESTION # 285
What IS the GREATEST concern for an IS auditor reviewing contracts tor licensed software tut executes a critical business process?

• A. Several vendor deliverables missed the commitment date
• B. An operational level agreement (OLA) was not negotiated
• C. The contract does not contain a right-audit clause
• D. Software escrow was not negotiated

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 286
Which of the following is MOST helpful to an IS auditor reviewing the alignment of planned IT budget with the organization's goals and strategic objectives?

• A. Risk assessment report
• B. Audit recommendations
• C. Enterprise architecture (EA)
• D. Business impact analysis (BIA)

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Enterprise architecture (EA) is the most helpful to an IS auditor reviewing the alignment of planned IT budget with the organization's goals and strategic objectives. EA is a well-defined practice for conducting enterprise analysis, design, planning, and implementation, using a comprehensive approach at all times, for the successful development and execution of strategy1. EA provides a blueprint for an effective IT strategy and guides the controlled evolution of IT in a way that delivers business benefit in a cost-effective way2. By reviewing the EA, the IS auditor can evaluate how well the planned IT budget supports the business vision, strategy, objectives, and capabilities of the organization.
The other options are not as helpful as EA for reviewing the alignment of planned IT budget with the organization's goals and strategic objectives. BIA is a process of determining the criticality of business activities and associated resource requirements to ensure operational resilience and continuity of operations during and after a business disruption3. BIA quantifies the impacts of disruptions on service delivery, risks to service delivery, and recovery time objectives (RTOs) and recovery point objectives (RPOs)3. BIA is useful for developing strategies, solutions, and plans for business continuity and disaster recovery, but it does not directly address the alignment of planned IT budget with the organization's goals and strategic objectives. Risk assessment report is a document that contains the results of performing a risk assessment or the formal output from the process of assessing risk4. Risk assessment is a method to identify, analyze, and control hazards and risks present in a situation or a place5. Risk assessment report is useful for identifying and mitigating potential threats and issues that are detrimental to the business or an enterprise, but it does not directly address the alignment of planned IT budget with the organization's goals and strategic objectives. Audit recommendations are guidance that highlights actions to be taken by management6. When implemented, process risks should be mitigated, and performance should be enhanced6. Audit recommendations are useful for improving the quality and reliability of the information system and its outputs, but they do not directly address the alignment of planned IT budget with the organization's goals and strategic objectives. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 287
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